Dumb question on seller credits: Why are credits specified in the contract along with a bogus sales price rather than the contract just reflecting a l

[/u/uluman]

With an inflated sales price and a credit, the buyer is essentially taking a larger mortgage to get cash upfront. Can't the buyer and their bank just work that out themselves? Why does a seller have to sign off on it?

To reinforce the point, on a cash offer a seller credit is meaningless compared to a lowered price. (except realtor commission or anything based on that artificial "sales price")

submitted by /u/uluman
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Dumb question on seller credits: Why are credits specified in the contract along with a bogus sales price rather than the contract just reflecting a lowered, more accurate sales price?
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